Who gets the pot? - ruling please
I think it's a pretty simple situation. You just have to look at it from a logical standpoint, and consider similar situations.If P2 thought he had a straight flush but only had a flush, exposed his cards and said "Oh S*^& I thought I had a straight flush," would he be awarded the pot? Of course not.If he exposed his cards in the same manner that he did here, but said nothing, should he be awarded the pot? Of course he should.If he said "Damn, I only have a flush" as a joke and showed his SF, should he be awarded the pot? Of course he should.So why should a mere mistaken belief according to his words that he was beat, even though he exposed his cards and he didn't muck them himself, make the situation any different? It shouldn't.If you think that P2 shouldn't be awarded the pot in this situation just because he misread his hand, you open the floodgates for all sorts of weird situations where what P2 actually did doesn't matter, and what P2 THOUGHT matters. That's just illogical.
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